First, please note that I did not support Mr. Trump in his campaign as to the Wisconsin primary election and did not vote for him.
House Speaker Ryan and too many others have denied that judges can be biased on the base of their race/culture/ideology.
It appears that he and those others are either totally ignorant of history OR are corruptly seeking election advantages by denying its lessons.
Within the USA we certainly have many examples (In and out of the "Old South") of White judges being biased, in opposition to the Constitution, against Black, Latino, Chinese and American Indian citizens. Is there some logical reason that some judges from those (Protected) groups do not hold and act upon like biases against Whites?
Outside of the USA, such bias has been shown by: Stalin's and Hitler's persecuting "judges" against those opposed to those tyrants' ideologies; Mexican judges against "Gringos"; And, Islam's courts against all women and all "unbelievers".
My father and grandparents were legal immigrants into the USA. Can US Judge Curiel maintain the same claim? Or, is he such an "Anchor Child" of parents who avoided the full jurisdiction of the USA by illegal entry into our nation---As apparently required for the full protections of the 14th Amendment to our Republic's Constitution?
If a judge is a "true believer" in Islam, can such a person be suspect of bias as that ideology is:
1. Strongly opposed to "Equal Justice Under Law"; And,
2. Supports/demands the replacement of all other law systems with Sharia.
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